In article <bcj896$9cu$1@nntp.itservices.ubc.ca>, haejin@netinfo.ubc.ca 
says...
>
>The definition that Westerners typically use to assert whether or not a
>country was "dominant" is whether it received tributes from other states
>(which I think is bullshit). For easterners, the nature of the tributes 
>that
>were received relative to those that were sent were more important.
>
>Korea sent yearly tributes to the Qing court, and the Qing sent tributes
> to
>the Chosun court.
>
>Are you saying that the Japanese court never sent any yearly tributes to
>either Chosun or the Qing court and vice-versa?
>
>Austin

I am not sure about China.  I don't think Japan
sent yearly tributes ot Chosun.  I believe there
was a brief period when Japan sent tributes to Chosun
during Sejong years but it did not last long.

>"shuji matsuda" <shuji__matsuda@hotmail.com> wrote in message
>news:bcd4i8$hl3gt$1@ID-37799.news.dfncis.de...
>> In article <87mGa.657$XZ4.50862339@newssvr15.news.prodigy.com>,
>> "USA" <USA@aol.com> wrote:
>> :But is that type of "colonization" any different from say...China's
>ancient
>> :dominance over Korea and Japan?
>> :The only difference here being that China is not a white country.
>>
>> I can see your point.  However, China has never had "dominance" over
>> Japan except for the two failed attempts.
>
>